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CPL Test Series
Question Bank
Questions for RADIO AIDS OX BACK QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1. The availability of 4096 codes in SSR is applicable to mode
All
C
A
S
2. A category III ILS system provides accurate guidance down to
less than 200 ft
less than 50 ft
the surface of the runway
less than 100 ft
3. In a primary pulsed radar the ability to discriminate in azimuth is a factor of
Pulse recurrence rate
Pulse width
Beamwidth
Rate of rotation
4. What are the ground components of MLS?
combined azimuth and elevation antennae with middle and outer markers
separate azimuth and elevation antennae with DME
separate azimuth and elevation antennae with middle and outer markers
combined azimuth and elevation antennae with DME
5. In NAVSTAR/GPS the PRN codes are used to
remove receiver clock error
determine satellite range
reduce ionospheric and tropospheric errors
eliminate satellite clock and ephemeris errors
6. The frequency band of MLS is
SHF
VHF
UHF
VLF
7. RAIM is achieved
within the receiver
by ground monitoring stations determining the satellite range errors which are relayed to receivers via geo-stationary satellites
any of the above
by ground stations determining the X, Y & Z errors and passing the corrections to receivers using pseudolites
8. According to ICAO (Annex 11), the definition of an RNAV system is
one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the specified limits of self contained on-board systems.
one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids or within the specified limits of self contained on-board systems but not a combination of the two
one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids or within the specified limits of self contained on-board systems or a combination of the two
one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids only
9. The principle of operation of LORAN C is
differential range by pulse technique
range by phase comparison
range by pulse technique
differential range by phase comparison
10. The distance measured between a satellite and a receiver is known as a pseudo-range because
satellite and receiver are continually moving in relation to each other
it is measured against idealised Keplerian orbits
it is measured using pseudo-random codes
it includes receiver clock error
11. The MDA for a non-precision approach using NAVSTAR/GPS is based on
GPS altitude
GPS or barometric altitude
radio altimeter
barometric altitude
12. In NAVSTAR/GPS the PRN codes are used to
differentiate between satellites
pass satellite time and ephemeris information
pass satellite time, ephemeris and other information
pass satellite ephemeris information
13. Which of the following may cause inaccuracies in ADF bearings?
coastal refraction, slant range, night effect
lack of failure warning, station interference, static interference
static interference, height effect, lack of failure warning
station interference, mountain effect, selective availability
14. Using a 5 dot CDI, how many dots would show for an aircraft on the edge of an airway at 100 nm from the VOR beacon?
1.5
2.5
3
5
15. An aircraft at FL360 is 10 nm plan range from a DME. The DME reading in the aircraft will be
13.6nm
10nm
8nm
11.7nm
16. The colour recommended in JAR25 for armed modes is
yellow
magenta
white
green
17. The NAVSTAR/GPS segments are
space, control, user
space, control, ground
space, control, air
space, ground, air
18. The best accuracy from satellite systems will be provided by
GLONASS and COSPAS/SARSAT
NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS
NAVSTAR/GPS and TNSS transit
GLONASS and TNSS transit
19. How is the distance between the NAVSTAR/GPS SV and the receiver determined?
by synchronising the receiver clock with the SV clock
by measuring the time from transmission to reception and multiplying by the speed of light
by measuring the time from transmission to reception and dividing by the speed of light
by referencing the SV and receiver positions to WGS84
20. Which axes is the AWR stabilised in?
Pitch, roll and yaw
Pitch only
Pitch and roll
Roll and yaw
21. The most accurate measurement of speed by DME for an aircraft at 30000 ft will be when the aircraft is
passing abeam the beacon at 5 nm
tracking towards the beacon at 10 nm
overhead the beacon
tracking away from the beacon at 100 nm
22. On the B737-400 EHSI what happens if the selected VOR fails?
the display flashes
a fail flag is displayed alongside the display bar
the deviation bar is removed
the display blanks and a fail warning appears
23. The JAR25 recommended colour for an off-route waypoint is
green
magenta
cyan
white
24. According to JAR25, for what type of message is the colour red used?
warnings, cautions, abnormal sources
flight envelope, system limits, engaged mode
cautions, abnormal sources, engaged mode
warnings, flight envelope, system limits
25. The preferred GNSS receiver for airborne application is
multi-channel
fast multiplex
sequential
multiplex
26. The JAR25 colour recommended for the display of current data is
yellow
white
magenta
red
27. The middle marker is usually located at a range of ……, with an audio frequency of …… and illuminates the …… light
1 km, 400 Hz, amber
4-6 nm, 1300 Hz, white
1 km, 400 Hz, white
1 km, 1300 Hz, amber
28. The phantom station in a 2D RNAV system may be generated by
VOR/DME
Any of the above
Twin VOR
Twin DME
29. In a certain VORTAC installation the VOR is coding STN and the DME is coding STZ. This means that the distance between the two beacons is in excess of
100m
300m
600m
2000m
30.
Refer to diagram E of Appendix A. The track from ZAPPO to BURDY is
205°(M)
064°(T)
064°(M)
205°(T)
31. The JAR25 recommended colour for the aircraft symbol is
green
cyan
magenta
white
32. The AWR can be used on the ground provided: i. the aircraft is clear of personnel, buildings and vehicles ii. conical beam is selected iii. maximum uptilt is selected iv. the AWR must never be operated on the ground
ii and iii
i and iii
i, ii and iii
iv
33. What equipment does an aircraft need when carrying out a VDF letdown?
VHF radio
VOR/DME
VOR
None
34. What is an ADC input to the FMC?
TAS
Heading
Groundspeed and drift
VOR/DME position
35. The inputs the pilot will make to the FMC during the pre-flight initialisation will include
Navigation data base, aircraft position and departure aerodrome
Departure runway, planned route and ETD.
ETD, aircraft position, and planned route
Planned route, aircraft position, and departure runway
36. At a range of 200 nm from a VOR, if there is an error of 1°, how far off the centreline is the aircraft?
1 nm
7 nm
1.75 nm
3.5 nm
37. With the AWR set at 100 nm range a large cloud appears at 50 nm. If the range is reduced to 50 nm
the image will increase in area and move to the top of the screen
the image will increase in area and move to the bottom of the screen
the image will decrease in area and move to the top of the screen
the image will decrease in area and remain where it is
38. The height of the GPS constellation is
20200 km
35800 km
10900 km
19300 km
39. The required accuracy of a precision RNAV (P-RNAV) system is
1.5 nm standard deviation or better
1 nm standard deviation or better
0.25 nm standard deviation or better
0.5 nm standard deviation or better
40. The orbital height of geostationary satellites is
35800 km
19330 km
10313 nm
10898 nm
41. In NAVSTAR/GPS the space segment
sends information for receiver to determine latitude, longitude and time
Provides the positional information to the receiver
the receiver interrogates the satellite and the satellite provides positional information
relays positional data from the control segment
42. The contents of the navigation and systems message from NAVSTAR/GPS SVs include
ionospheric propagation information, X, Y & Z co-ordinates and corrections, satellite clock time and error
satellite clock error, almanac data, ionospheric propagation information
satellite clock error, almanac data, satellite position error
position accuracy verification, satellite clock time and clock error
43. The function of the receiver in the GNSS user segment is to
interrogate the satellites to determine range
track the satellites to calculate time
track the satellites to calculate range
determine position and assess the accuracy of that position
44. With reference to SSR, what code is used to indicate transponder altitude failure?
7600
0000
9999
4096
45. Which of the following statements regarding VHF direction finding (VDF) is most accurate?
it uses line of sight propagation
it is simple requiring only VHF radios on the ground and in the aircraft
it is simple and only requires a VHF radio on the ground
It is simple and requires a VHF radio and DF equipment in the aircraft
46. Which of the following is the most significant error in ADF?
coastal refraction
static from Cb
precipitation static
quadrantal error
47. A radio beacon has a range of 10 nm. By what factor should the power be increased to achieve a range of 20 nm?
8
4
16
2
48. When using GPS to fly airways, what is the vertical reference used?
average of barometric and GPS
radio altitude
GPS height
barometric
49. The best radar for measuring very short ranges is
a pulsed secondary radar
a pulsed primary radar
a continuous wave secondary radar
a continuous wave primary radar
50. Why is a secondary radar display free from weather clutter?
moving target indication is used to suppress the static generated by water droplets
the principle of the return of echoes is not used
the frequencies are too low to detect water droplets
the frequencies are too high to detect water droplets
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