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CPL Test Series
Question Bank
Questions for special operational procedure and hazard
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question are defined as such by
The IATA document entitled "Regulations governing the transportation of dangerous goods by air"
The ICAO document entitled "Technical Instructions for the safe transportation of dangerous gods by air"
The directive of the Community Union
2.
A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The safest extinguish to use is
Foam
CO2 (carbon dioxide)
Dry powder
3.
After landing, in case of high temperature of the brakes you
Apply the parking brake and approach the wheels sidewards
Release the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from aft or fore
Release the parking brake and you approach the wheels sidewards
4.
Fuel Jettison
Is a procedure to reduce mass in an emergency only.
Is a procedure that may be employed to reduce aeroplane mass where an overweight landing may result in damage to the aeroplane.
May be ordered by ATC to reduce aeroplane mass in an emergency situation.
5.
In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you fight the fire using: 1. A dry powder fire extinguisher 2. A water spray atomizer 3. A water fire-extinguisher 4. A CO2 fire-extinguisher to the maximum. The combination of correct statements is
1, 4
1, 2
3, 4
6.
In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you will: 1. set the maximum take-off thrust 2. Increase the pitch-up altitude up to the limit actuating the stick shaker 3. pull in the drag devices (gear and flaps) 4. keep the airplane's current configuration 5. try to reach the maximum lift-to drag ratio The combination of correct statements is
1, 3, 5
1, 2, 4
3, 5
7.
To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use: 1. A water fire-extinguisher 2. A powder or chemical fire-extinguisher 3. A halon fire-extinguisher 4. A CO2 fire extinguisher. The combination of correct statements is
1, 2
2, 3, 4
3, 4
8.
A runway is considered damp when
It is covered with a film of water of less than 3mm
Surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance
Its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give a shiny appearance
9.
An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of
40kt
20kt
80kt
10.
The system which must be switched off in case of a belly compartment fire is generally the
Pressurization
Trim air
Ventilation of the cargo compartment
11.
A separation minimum shall be applied between a LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is
2 minutes
1 minute
3 minutes
12.
During an approach procedure which involves noise abatement, the aeroplane is to be in the final landing configuration at any point after passing the .... or at a point... from the threshold of the landing runway, whichever is earlier
Outer marker, 5NM
Final marker, 6NM
Middle marker, 5 NM
13.
The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the
Depth of the standing water of the runway
Strength of the headwind
Aircraft's weight
14.
What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a LIGHT aircraft is taking off behind a MEDIUM aircraft and both are using the same runway?
2 minutes
1 minute
3 minutes
15.
If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to
Put on the mask and goggles
Determine which system is causing the smoke
Begin an emergency descent
16.
The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the
Value of the stall angle of attack
Roll rate
Stalling speed
17.
Wake turbulence risk is highest
If, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same runway with heavy crosswind.
When a preceding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust just prior to take off.
When a heavy aircraft has just performed take-off at a closely situated parallel runway with a light crosswind.
18.
Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the
Pressure of the pneumatic tyres
Pressure of the hydraulic fluid
Temperature of the brakes
19.
In addition to inform each State, whose citizens are known to be onboard an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the
State of Registry of the aircraft and the DGCA
State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator only
State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and ICAO
20.
If you encounter a "microburst" just after taking-off, at the beginning you will have: 1. A head wind 2. A strong rear wind 3. Better climb performances 4. A diminution of climb gradient 5. An important thrust drop The combination of correct statements is
1, 4
1, 3
4, 5
21.
When flight crew members are at their duty stations they must
Fully raise the seat
Keep the seat belts fastened
Wear a communications head set
22.
The observations and studies conducted on the behaviour of birds on the ground, ahead of an aircraft taking off and having reached an average speed of 135 kt, show that birds fly away
From the beginning of the takeoff roll.
About two seconds beforehand
About ten seconds beforehand
23.
Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a wind shear?
Vertical speed
Indicated airspeed
Groundspeed
24.
Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the commander should submit a report of the act to
The Authority of the State within which the aeroplane is operating at the time of the unlawful interference
The local authority only
Both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator
25.
The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by
The aeronautical authority the airline operator depends on
The manufacturer
The airline operator
26.
A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for: 1. A paper fire 2. A fabric fire 3. An electric fire 4. A wood fire 5. A hydrocarbon fire. The combination of correct statements is
2, 3, 4
2, 4, 5
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
27.
You will use a water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) on a fire of: 1. Solid (fabric, carpet,...) 2. Liquids(ether, gasoline,..) 3. Gas 4. Metals (sodium,...) The combination of correct statement is
1
3
2
28.
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an Increasing tailwind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1. files above the glide path 2. files below the glide path 3. has an increasing true airspeed 4. has a decreasing true airspeed The combination of correct statements is
2, 4
2, 3
1, 4
29.
Who has the responsibility to take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful Interference until their journey can be continued? The
DGCA
Contracting State in which the unlawful interference occurs
Commander of the aircraft
30.
You will use a Halon extinguisher for a fire of: 1. Solids (fabric, plastic,...) 2. liquids(alcohol, gasoline,...) 3. Gas 4. Metals (aluminium, magnesium,...)
1, 2, 4
2, 3, 4
1, 2, 3
31.
Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by
17.6%
15%
18%
32.
In the event of a precautionary landing, who is responsible for alerting the emergency services?
The commander
The operations dispatcher
ATC
33.
What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a "Heavy" aircraft preceeding a "Light" aircraft
3NM
6NM
2km
34.
Viscous hydroplaning is caused by
A rough runway surface
Bald tyres
A smooth and dirty runway surface
35.
Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purpose during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS the
Commander
State in which the aeroplane is operating
Operator
36.
Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with icing conditions
The flight should be planned so that a change of cruising level can be initiated rapidly
The aircraft shall before flight sprayed with anti-icing fluid
The aircraft shall be equipped with approved ice-protection systems
37.
Water fire extinguisher with a directed spray can be used on which fires?
Solid fires.
Liquid fires.
Gas fires.
38.
H2O extinguishers are fit to flight
Electrical source fires
Class B fires
Class A fires
39.
An aircraft is configured for seating 61 to 200 passengers. What is the requirement for hand held fire extinguishers
4 conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
2 conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
3 conveniently located in the passenger compartment
40.
The effect whereby a tyre is lifted from the runway due to aeroplane speed along the runway is known as
Hydroplaning
Aqua-skimming
Surface tension
41.
You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for: 1. A paper fire 2. A plastic fire 3. A hydrocarbon fire 4. An electrical fire The combination of correct statements is
1, 2, 3
1, 2, 3 4
3, 4
42.
Can dangerous goods be carried in the passenger cabin or on the flight deck?
Yes, provided they are non toxic
Yes, if authorised by the authority
Yes, but only goods specified in the technical instructions
43.
In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you
Pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire-extinguisher
Carry out a damp cranking
Carry out a dry canking
44.
An ongine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut-off-handle. The fire shut-off-handle will be switched off when
The fire-extinguisher has been triggered
The fire shut-off handle has been pulled
Fire is no longer detected
45.
Fuel Jettison should be carried out
Above 6,000ft AGL
All answers are correct
Anywhere if unavoidable
46.
In case of an engine jet pipe fire while on the ground you
Pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire extinguishers.
Carry out a dry motoring cycle
Carry out a wet motoring cycle
47.
A fast decompression is recognizable by the following elements: 1. Mist in the cabin 2. Blast towards the exterior of the aircraft 3. Expansion of body gases 4. Blast of air released violently from the lungs The combination of correct elements is
1, 2, 3, 4
1, 4
1, 2, 3
48.
A runway is considered wet when: 1. It is covered with a quantity of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3mm of water. 2. The amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does not give it a shiny appearance 3. The amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of water 4. It bears stagnant sheets of water. The combination of correct statements is
1, 3
1, 2
1, 2, 3
49.
The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent area that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is
13000ft
15000ft
14000ft
50.
In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is
7500
7700
2000
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