Email
info@vayudootaviation.com
Phone No
+91 7276526726
become a pilot
Home
About us
courses
CPL
ATPL
RTR(A)
Airline Cadet Program
IGRUA Entrance Prep
B.Sc. Aviation
Pilot Training
INDIA
USA
CANADA
SOUTH AFRICA
NEW ZEALAND
EUROPE
Aircraft Type-Rating
Airbus A320
Boeing 737
Blogs
contact
CPL Test Series
Question Bank
Questions for SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 14
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
A person dies of Typhus; his body can be brought to India if
Sealed in zinc and packed in a wooden box. Closed in a shell of zinc, joints sealed, shell enclosed in a teak wooden box which is enclosed in zinc lined box, filed with saw dust impregnated with carbolic power.
Cannot be brought.
Packed in a wooden box.
2.
Ac 'A' at F 90 is reciprocal to 'B' at F 80 in class 'A' airspace. 'A' can descend through 'B's level
Immediately after estimated time of crossing.
After 5 mins of crossing each other.
'A' can descend remaining in VMC & maintaining own separation.
3.
If you are requested to report your height, to which Q-code-setting would you refer?
QFE.
QNH.
QNE.
4.
According to which Convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person committing a crime or an offense on board the aircraft?
The Convention of Warsaw.
The Convention of Tokyo.
The Convention of Rome.
5.
High intensity obstacle lights should be
Flashing white.
Flashing red.
Fixed orange.
6.
The convention on offenses and certain acts committed on board aircraft is
The convention of Rome.
The convention of Chicago.
The convention of Tokyo.
7.
Where ADS-B is used for Identification, aircraft may be identified by the following procedure
Direct recognition of the aircraft identification in an ADS-B label.
Asking him to squawk assigned mode A code C.
Recognition of an assigned discrete code, the setting of which has been verified.
8.
A series of red flashes sent to an aircraft in flight means
Notwithstanding any other instructions do not land at the moment.
Airfield is unsafe, do not land.
Return to the airfield and land.
9.
You observe thunderstorms without hail on our route. On radio telephony you shall report the phenomenon as
Thunderstorms, hail not observed.
Thunderstorms, no hail.
Thunderstorms.
10.
If you fly Into Severe Turbulence which flight condition should you intend to maintain
Constant Airspeed.
Level fit Altitude.
Constant Altitude and Constant Speed.
11.
During the transmission of numbers containing a decimal point
The term Decimal can be omitted if no chance of misunderstandings exists.
The term Decimal must be spoken only if followed by three digits.
The term Decimal must always be transmitted.
12.
For a VFR flight in Airspace F and G in India 'At and below 900 m (3000 ft,) AMSL, or 300 m (1000 ft.) above terrain, whichever is the higher'
Flight visibility reduced to not less than 3000 m may be permitted for helicopters.
Flight visibility reduced to not less than 3000 m may be permitted for all aircraft.
Flight visibility not less than 5000 m is required for fixed wing aircraft.
13.
State aircraft includes
All aircraft registered in India.
Air India Aircraft.
Military aircraft.
14.
Operational Threats outside the control of light crew are
Aircraft malfunctions, Automation events etc.
Adverse weather, Terrain, Airport conditions, Heavy traffic/TCAS events, Unfamiliar airports etc.
Time pressure, Irregular operations, Flight diversions, Missed approaches etc.
15.
The crew member certificate (CMC) shall be accepted by each contracting state for identification purposes
None of the above.
Together with a valid passport and flight crew license.
Together with a valid flight crew license.
16.
Nationality marks used in India are
Letters VT only
Letters VT, VU and U
Letters AT to AW
17.
Night Duty is any Duty Period encroaching upon any portion of the time period between ____________ in the time zone to which the crew is acclimatized
2300 hrs. and 0500 hrs.
2200 hrs. and 0600 hrs.
0000 hrs. and 0500 hrs.
18.
During an extensive gym work out, one experiences
Angina due to increased blood circulation.
Hypoxia due to lack of oxygen.
Hyperventilation due to excessive CO2 in blood.
19.
While flying on a magnetic track of 157 degrees the aircraft on VFR plan will select the following levels
70.
75
85.
20.
Identify Runway Lighting on center line lighting system
Amber light from 3000' to 1000 ft then Alternative Red and which light to the end.
Alternative Red and white light from 3000'ft to end of runway.
Alternative Red and white light from 3000'ft to 1000 ft and then Red light to the end.
21.
STAR is a
Designated VFR arrival route.
Designated IFR arrival route.
Pole Star used to ascertain the true North.
22.
An AIRAC is
A notices distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
An acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating procedures.
A package which consists of the following elements: AIP, supplements to the AIP, NOTAM, AIC, checklists and summaries.
23.
If a pilot in the air sees a 2.5 meter symbol "X" on the ground. What does it mean?
A survivor requires medical assistance.
Aircraft not permitted to proceed beyond this point.
Flying is prohibited over this area.
24.
The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published
Only in NOTAM.
In NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement.
Only in AIP.
25.
The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, and offense against penal law
May deliver such person to the competent authorities.
Can not request for the assistance of passengers to restrain such persons.
Can not authorize the assistance of other crew members.
26.
Pilots will feel more confident intervening (when they think that a colleague has missed something) if they know that
The colleague has acted irresponsibly and needs to be reprimanded to be more careful.
No intervention is required if the colleague is a senior captain and must be doing the right thing.
It is common for everyone to miss obvious things, and the colleague also knows this.
27.
In a severe case of hypoxia
Only blood pressure and heart functions are maintained.
Only brain and heart functions are maintained.
Only blood pressure and brain functions are maintained.
28.
When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example
RWY.
DDD.
XXX.
29.
Navigation light are to be displayed by all aircraft in flight
At all time.
From 30 mins after sunset till 30 mins before sunrise.
From sunset to sunrise.
30.
Aerodrome Operations Vehicles are considered to be
FOD.
Flight Operation Hazards.
A possible source of FOD.
31.
The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course shall be
2.5NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
2.0NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course.
3.0NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
32.
What is the purpose of a Crew Member's Certificate (CMC)?
To permit access to the air side of an aerodrome for aircrew.
To allow flight crew to be exempted from customs, health and immigration formalities when disembarking.
To provide identification of aircrew.
33.
The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "G" above 10000ft MSL are
1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000ft vertically from clouds; 8km visibility.
1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000ft vertically from clouds; 5km visibility.
1500m horizontally, 1000ft vertically from clouds; 8km visibility.
34.
When a controlled flight deviates from its current flight plan, ATC has to be informed in case
The estimated time is in error by more than 3 minutes.
The TAS varies by plus or minus 10 knots or more of the TAS notified in the flight plan.
The TAS varies by plus or minus 5% or more of the TAS notified in the flight plan.
35.
The phrase used by ATC to instruct you to listen out on a frequency is
Monitor.
Pay attention.
Select Frequency.
36.
For landing minima considerations, the following values out of the multiple RVR values are taken into account
RVR at the beginning of the runway.
RVR at the end of the runway.
RVR at the middle of the runway.
37.
Which of the following is defined as "The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop way, if provided"
Landing distance available.
Take off distance available.
Accelerate stop distance available.
38.
When instructed by ATC to hold short of Runway pilot should stop
With nose gear on hold line.
So that no part of the A/C extends beyond hold line.
So that the Fit Deck Area of A/c is even with the hold line.
39.
The west end of a runway oriented east and west is numbered
10 if the magnetic heading online up is 097 degrees.
09.
28.
40.
ILS Category I, DH equal to or greater than 75 m (250 ft) is a
3D-Type B precision approach.
3D-Type A non-precision approach.
3D-Type A precision approach.
41.
Who is responsible for providing search and rescue facilities over land?
The State in whose territory the crash occurred.
The State of Registry of the aircraft.
The State from which the aircraft took off.
42.
An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than
60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
43.
Aircraft meets with an accident on runway, its wreckage can be removed
Can be removed only after investigating authority's permission.
Can be removed only after DGCA permission.
For removing dead body of a dog.
44.
An aircraft flying over the territory of another state must
Follow the rules of the Air of the State of the Operator.
Follow the rules of the Air of the State of Registration.
Follow the rules of the Air of the State it is over flying.
45.
Traffic Advisories can be issued against any
Transponder-equipped aircraft that responds to the ICAO Mode C interrogations.
Transponder-equipped aircraft that has altitude-reporting capability.
Aircraft even when it is not transponder-equipped.
46.
Which of the following system describes an abbreviated precision approach path indicator
Twenty light units symmetrically disposed about the runway center line in the form of two wing bars of four light units each, with bisecting longitudinal lines of six lights.
Ten light units arranged on one side of the runway in the form of a single wing bar of four light units, with a bisecting longitudinal line of six lights.
A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp units normally located on the left side of the runway unless it is physically impracticable to do so.
47.
Ac 'A' reports 27 NMs inbound of DPN VOR at F 150. Ac 'B' reports 39 NMs inbound of DPN VOR on same track & level. Which statements is true if A is 10 kts faster than ‘B’
'A' will be advised to increase speed by 10 kts to achieve longitudinal separation.
Longitudinal Separation exists.
'B' will be advised to decrease speed by 5 kts to achieve longitudinal separation.
48.
Which part of the ear could be affected due to air pressure changes during climb and/or descent?
The eustachian tube and the tympanic membrane (ear drum).
The cochlea.
The semicircular canal and inner ear.
49.
Identify Taxi way lights associated with center line lighting system
Alternative Blue and White light covering from the center line of the Taxiway.
Blue light covering from the center line of R/Way to the center line of taxiway.
Alternate green & white light covering from center line of Runway to the center line of taxiway.
50.
Series of red and green projection fired at an interval of 10 sees means
Exercise caution while landing.
Do not land for the time being.
Keep away from danger area.
Submit
Make New Set
