Email
info@vayudootaviation.com
Phone No
+91 7276526726
become a pilot
Home
About us
courses
CPL
ATPL
RTR(A)
Airline Cadet Program
IGRUA Entrance Prep
B.Sc. Aviation
Pilot Training
INDIA
USA
CANADA
SOUTH AFRICA
NEW ZEALAND
EUROPE
Aircraft Type-Rating
Airbus A320
Boeing 737
Blogs
contact
CPL Test Series
Question Bank
Questions for SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 15
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
For Distress messages (SS), Urgency messages (DD), Flight safety messages (FF), Meteorological messages (GG) and Aeronautical administrative messages (KK) the order of priority for the message transmission is
1. SS, D 2. GG 3. FF 4. KK.
1. SS 2.DD 3. FF 4. KK 5. GG.
1. SS 2. DD, FF 3. GG, KK.
2.
Turbulence causing aircraft to violently toss about and it is practically impossible to control, may also cause structural damage is classified as?
Light
Severe
Moderate
3.
Priority indicator for messages concerning NOTAMs and SNOWTAMs is
DD.
GG.
KK.
4.
After rain Controller reports that runway is WET. The indicates to a pilot that
There is no standing water with a depth of more than 3 cms on one third of the runway.
The surface is soaked but there is no standing water.
The runway is closed due to water logging and pilot should divert.
5.
A glide path angle of more than 3° should be allowed only when
CAT II and III operations take place in extremely bad weather conditions.
Large wide body aircraft operate from the runway.
There is no other option available to provide obstacle clearance on the approach path.
6.
Turbulence causing slight erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times is classified as?
Moderate
Light
Severe
7.
For ILS/MLS/GLS the minimum, maximum and optimum glide path angles are
2.5°, 3.5° (3° for CAT II and III operations), 3°.
2.5°, 4° (3° for CAT II and III operations), 3°.
2.5°, 4.5° (3° for CAT III operations), 3°.
8.
Precision approach procedure is classed nonstandard if
The glide path angle exceeds 3.5°.
Both A and B are correct.
The rate of descend exceeds 1000 feet per minute.
9.
ICAO is
A part and parcel of UNO as a non-specialized agency.
An independent and autonomous agency, with a constituency status in the UNO.
Not associated with UNO at all.
10.
Rules on Pilots logbook are given in ___________ of Aircraft rules 1937
Rule 24B
Rule 67A
Rule 65
11.
In AIP, Enroute 3.1, ATS routes are described as
RNP routes
Conventional Navigation Routes.
Lower ATS Routes.
12.
Runway friction coefficient 0.20 means estimated surface friction
Poor
Medium to Good
Good
13.
Standing water on runway is notified through a
Snowtam
AIRRAC
Notam W
14.
Runway Condition Report (RCR) is prepared by ______________ for use by _________________
Aerodrome Operator, Flight Crew
Flight Crew, Aircraft Operator
Flight Crew, DGCA
15.
Friction Coefficient due to snow -- in how many segments is runway divided based on friction level?
1/4
1/3
1/2
16.
Turbulence causing slight erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude is classified as?
Moderate
Severe.
Light.
17.
Priority order in the ITU Radio Regulations and in Annex 10 for current communication systems is: 1. Distress calls, distress messages, and distress traffic (emergency messages). 2. Communications relating to direction finding (to modify the course). 3. Urgency messages. 4. Flight regularity messages. 5. Meteorological messages (meteorological information). 6. Flight safety messages (movement and control)
1, 3, 6, 5, 2, 4
1, 2, 3, 5, 4, 6
1, 3, 2, 6, 5, 4.
18.
Which convention is considered to be a fore runner of Chicago Convention, 1944?
Warsaw Convention, 1929
Ibero-American Convention, 1926
Paris Convention, 1919
19.
What is rule 25 in Aircraft rules 1937?
Aircraft in distress
Dangerous flying
Smoking in aircraft
20.
Purpose of VSS is to?
Visual Segment Surface purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (except a circling approach).
Visual Safety Surface purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (except a circling approach).
Visual Safety Surface purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (including a circling approach).
21.
A glide path angle can be reduced to below 3° for
Both A and B are correct.
Obstacle clearance on approach.
Operational reasons like military aircraft with excess thrust.
22.
Priority indicator for meteorological messages (excluding SIGMET, special air-reports, AIRMET, volcanic ash and tropical cyclone advisories) is
GG.
KK.
FF
23.
ADC Validity Period is
(+) 60 minutes of EOBT in RPL/FPL
(-) 15 minutes to (+) 30 minutes of EOBT in RPL/FPL.
(-) 15 minutes to (+) 45 minutes of EOBT in RPL/FPL.
24.
Runway Condition Code (RWYCC) is reported for
Each one third portion of the operational runway to indicate the presence of water, snow, ice, slush or frost.
For non-operational runway to denote it's status.
The runway to indicate unusable portion of the operational runway.
25.
While cruising at 18000' you experience drowsiness, poor Judgement, garbled speech and loss of muscle coordination. This may be due to the ___________ of hypoxia
Critical Stage.
Compensatory Stage.
Disturbance Stage.
26.
Aircraft in approaching to land at initial approach what is the obstacles clearance height?
At least 500'.
At least 300'.
At least 984'.
27.
How long are Cognitive functions affected by stress?
In l.ng term only,
In short term as well as long term.
In short term only.
28.
The phrase 'Radar contact' means?
A/C is under positive control.
No more position report is required.
The aircraft has been identified on radar.
29.
ATC clears an aircraft for immediate take off. Actions by the pilot are?
Take off with 30 seconds of clearance.
Take off immediately after all mandatory checks.
Taxi immediately to runway and commence take off without stopping.
30.
Aircraft is facing severe turbulence, pilot should maintain?
Constant maneuvering speed (Va).
Constant maneuvering speed (Va) and altitude.
Constant altitude.
31.
Minima for operations at aerodrome by operator can be lower than the set minima?
If approved by the state of registry.
If approved by ICAO for international flights.
If approved by the state of operator.
32.
OCA/OCH is measured with respect to
Threshold or ARP.
Aiming point.
MSL.
33.
Priority indicator SS is used for
Distress messages sent by aircraft reporting that they are threatened by imminent danger and all other messages relative to immediate assistance.
Urgency messages concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicles, or of some person on board or within sight.
Urgency messages sent by aircraft reporting that they are threatened by imminent danger and all other messages relative to immediate assistance.
34.
If you see red and white lights of the aircraft ahead, it means
The aircraft is moving from left to right
The aircraft is moving from right to left
The aircraft is flying near parallel to you
35.
In radiotelephony 3500 is spoken as?
This is a vague number.
TREE FIFE ZERO ZERO.
TREE TOU SAND FIFE HUNDRED.
36.
Identify the correct Taxiway designator
I 2
X 1
Z 2
37.
Aircraft is on final approach. The pilot suffers from hyperventilation. Correct actions by the pilot are
Breathe oxygen at 100%, the symptoms will improve markedly after three or four breaths.
Control the depth of breathing. Consciously slow the rate of breathing to 10-12 breaths.
Take deep breaths and continue descend to land.
38.
In the event of a proposed delay of _________ or more to the departure time for a flight plan when a flight plan has been previously filed, the Pilot-in-Command or his representative will be required to notify ATC of the revised ETD
30 minutes
15 minutes
60 minutes
39.
Wildlife hazard at aerodromes is caused due to the presence of
Birds and animals
Wild animals
Animals
40.
Aerodrome Operations Vehicles are considered to be
A possible source of FOD
FOD
Flight Operation Hazards
41.
What's the specific gravity of slush?
0.8 up to 1.1
1.0 up 1.3
0.5 up to 0.8
42.
Main stages of hypoxia are: 1. The Indifferent Stage (sea level to 10000'). 2. The Incapacitation Stage (may occur at any level above 10000'). 3. The Compensatory Stage (10000' to 15000'). 4. The Disturbance Stage (15000' to 20000') 5. The Critical Stage (beyond 20000')
2, 3, 4, 5
1, 2, 4, 5
1, 3, 4, 5
43.
Flight Plan is to be filed at least?
Three hours before EOBT
One hour before EOBT
One hour before TOBT
44.
What are the various stages of hypoxia?
Disturbance Stage- oxygen saturation between 70%-79% and Critical Stage- oxygen saturation between 60%-69%.
Indifferent Stage- oxygen saturation between 90%-98% and Compensatory State- oxygen saturation between 80%-89%.
Both A and B are correct.
45.
Flight safety messages comprise movement and control messages (e.g., FPL, DLA, CNL, DEP, ARR, OLDI messages, etc.), messages by the operator that are of immediate concern to aircraft and some meteorological messages (SIGMET, special air-reports, AIMET, volcanic ash and tropical cyclone advisories. The priority indicator for such messages is
SS
GG
FF
46.
FMS/RNAV
Can be used for conventional procedures if permitted by DGCA
Can be used for conventional procedures only is AFM permits.
Cannot be used for conventional procedures
47.
Does hypoxia cause hyperventilation or only pressure breathing?
Both hyperventilation and pressure breathing.
Only pressure breathing.
Only hyperventilation.
48.
In AIP, Enroute 3.2, ATS routes are described as
Upper ATS Routes
Non RNP routes
Air Navigation Routes
49.
ADC validity for non-schedule domestic flights is
(-) 15 minutes to (+) 3 hours of EOBT.
(-) 15 minutes to (+) 45 minutes of EOBT in RPL/FPL.
(+) 60 minutes of EOBT in RPL/FPL.
50.
SATVOICE is
Not a valid Long-Range Communication System (LRCS) as yet.
A valid Long- Range Communication System (LRCS).
Another name for SATCOM.
Submit
Make New Set
