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CPL Test Series
Question Bank
Questions for PERFORMANCE (1718-2089)
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
The take-off run is
1.15 times the distance from the point of brake release to the point at which VLOF is reached assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.
the distance of the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 50 ft above the runway assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.
1.5 times the distance from the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 35 ft above the runway with all engines operative
the horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface
2.
The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on
the bank angle only.
the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane
the true airspeed and the bank angle.
the radius of the turn and the bank angle
3.
A flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an aerodrome with a landing distance available of 2400 m. Which of the following is the maximum landing distance for a dry runway?
1 440 m.
1 655 m.
1 090 m.
1 250 m.
4.
Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when
it is dark.
obstacles are present close to the end of the runway
the runway is contaminated
the runway is wet.
5.
The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of
true airspeed to rate of climb
the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage
the increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage.
rate of climb to true airspeed
6.
In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engined aeroplane only depends on
altitude, speed, mass and fuel on board
speed and mass
altitude, speed and mass
speed, mass and fuel on board
7.
Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting
decreases rate of climb and increses angle of climb.
improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY.
improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX.
decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb.
8.
The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be
Unchanged
Improved
Unchanged, if a short field take-off is adopted
Degraded
9.
Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre speed and max brake energy speed are not limiting?
VREF
V2
VMCA
VR
10.
For a turbojet aeroplane, what is the maximum landing distance for wet runways when the landing distance available at an aerodrome is 3000 m?
1800 m.
2 070 m
1565 m.
2609 m.
11.
An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°.If a pilot chooses 25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will have
an increased landing distance and better go-around performance
a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance
an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance
12.
The flight manual of a light twin engine recommends two cruise power settings, 65 and 75 %. The 75% power setting in relation to the 65 % results in
same speed and an increase of the fuel-burn per hour and fuel-burn/distance
same speed and fuel-burn/distance, but an increase in the fuel-burn per hour
an increase in speed and fuel-burn/distance, but an unchanged fuel-burn per hour.
an increase in speed, fuel consumption and fuel-burn/distance.
13.
On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is
The speed must be increased to compensate the lower mass
The specific range decreases and the optimum altitude increases.
The specific range and the optimum altitude increases
The specific range increases and the optimum altitude decreases
14.
What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?
It will increase the accelerate stop distance available.
It will increase the take-off distance
It will increase the take-off distance available.
It will decrease the take-off distance.
15.
What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event of a climb limited takeoff?
The accelerate stop distance required is the shortest.
The take-off distance required with one engine out at V1 is the shortest.
The climb limited take-off mass is the highest
The safety margin with respect to the runway length is greatest.
16.
Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by
VR and VMCG
V2 and VMCA
VR and VMCA
V2 and VMCG
17.
Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be
lower.
only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes
higher.
unaffected.
18.
V2 has to be equal to or higher than
1.15 VR
1.15 VMCG.
1.1 VMCA
1.1 VSO.
19.
An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000 metres clearway at each end of that runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the take-off distance available cannot be greater than
4000 metres
5000 metres
4500 metres
6000 metres.
20.
On a segment of the take-off flight path an obstacle requires a minimum gradient of climb of 2.6% in order to provide an adequate margin of safe clearance. At a mass of 110000 kg the gradient of climb is 2.8%. For the same power and assuming that the sine of the angle of climb varies inversely with mass, at what maximum mass will the aeroplane be able to achieve the minimum gradient?
118455 kg
102150 kg
106425 kg
121310 kg
21.
The speed V1 is defined as
speed for best angle of climb
engine failure speed
take-off climb speed.
take-off decision speed
22.
Long range cruise is selected as
specific range with tailwind.
the higher speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range in zero wind
the climbing cruise with one or two engines inoperative.
the speed for best economy.
23.
The take-off mass could be limited by
the take-off distance available (TODA), the maximum brake energy and the climb gradient with one engine inoperative.
the climb gradient with one engine inoperative only.
the take-off distance available (TODA) only.
the maximum brake energy only
24.
On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuraton the drag
remains unchanged but the the CAS increases.
decreases and the CAS decreases too because of the lower air density.
increases at constant TAS
remains unchanged but the TAS increases
25.
An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS rule may be up to
180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport under the prevailing weather condition with one engine inoperative
180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport in still air with one engine inoperative
180 minutes flying time from suitable airport in still air at a normal cruising speed
90 minutes flying time from the first enroute airport and another 90 minutes from the second enroute airport in still air with one engine inoperative.
26.
Reduced take-off thrust
is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT).
can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least 10 kt.
has the benefit of improving engine life.
can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the performance limited take-off mass.
27.
Which statement is correct?
In case of engine failure below VR the take-off should be aborted.
VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure.
VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated.
VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine failure
28.
A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with one engine inoperative, and has to overfly a high terrain area. In order to allow the greatest clearance height, the appropriate airspeed must be the airspeed
for long-range cruise
giving the lowest Cl/Cd ratio
giving the highest Cd/Cl ratio
of greatest lift-to-drag ratio
29.
According to the chart the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is 8500 ft. The meteorological data gives an outside air temperature of -20°C at FL 85. The QNH, given by a met. station at an elevation of 4000ft, is 1003 hPa.What is the minimum pressure altitude which should be flown according to the given MOCA?
8200 ft.
8800 ft.
8500 ft.
12800 ft
30.
What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant ?
The ROC speed decreases with increasing mass.
The ROC and the ROC speed are independant of the mass
The ROC speed increases with increasing mass
The ROC is affected by the mass, but not the ROC speed
31.
In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA) equilibrium of forces acting on the aeroplane is given by:(T = Thrust, D = Drag, W = Weight)
T - W sin GAMMA = D
T + W sin GAMMA = D
T - D = W sin GAMMA
T + D = - W sin GAMMA
32.
How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75?Given: FL 75, departure aerodrome elevation 1500 ft, QNH = 1023 hPa, temperature = ISA, 1 hPa = 30 ft
7800 ft.
6600 ft.
6000 ft.
6300 ft.
33.
Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM?
High flap setting, low PA, low OAT
Low flap setting, high PA, high OAT.
Low flap setting, high PA, low OAT
Low flap setting, low PA, low OAT.
34.
Which statement is correct?
VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than 1.1 V1.
VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1.
VR must not be less than VMCA and not less than 1.05 V1.
VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and not less than V1.
35.
Which of the following statements is correct?If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases
the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag increases
the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.
the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.
the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag increases
36.
The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and
the point where V2 is reached
the point half way between V1 and V2.
the middle of the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft point.
the lift-off point
37.
In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust required (Tr) equal to the drag (D)?
In a climb with constant IAS
In a descent with constant TAS
In level flight with constant IAS
In accelerated level flight
38.
Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct?
The usable length of the clearway is not limited
The field length limited take-off mass will increase.
V1 remains constant
V1 is increased
39.
Higher gross mass at the same altitude decreases the gradient and the rate of climb whereas
VY and VX are not affected by a higher gross mass
VY and VX are increased.
VX is increased and VY is decreased
VY and VX are decreased
40.
Field length is balanced when
one engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet are equal.
take-off distance equals accelerate-stop distance
calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1, VR, VMCG
all engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take-off are equal.
41.
The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve
minimum climb gradient in the event of a go-around with one engine inoperative
manoeuverability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating
manoeuverability in the event of landing with one engine inoperative
obstacle clearance in the approach area.
42.
Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude ?
If at the lower altitude either considerably less headwind or considerably more tailwind can be expected.
If at the lower altitude either more headwind or less tailwind can be expected.
If the temperature is lower at the low altitude (high altitude inversion).
If the maximum altitude is below the optimum altitude.
43.
May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off and landing data ?
Only for take-off
No.
Yes.
Only for landing.
44.
Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)?
VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes
The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb gradient
Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed.
The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA
45.
A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature
increases the climb limited take-off mass
decreases the take-off distance
has no influence on the allowed take-off mass
decreases the field length limited take-off mass
46.
How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere?
TAS increases
TAS decreases
TAS is constant
TAS is not related to Mach Number
47.
A higher outside air temperature
increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb.
does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance
reduces the angle and the rate of climb
reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb
48.
VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than
1000 ft above the heighest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.
2000 ft above the heighest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft
the heighest obstacle
500 ft above the heighest obstacle
49.
The speed for maximum endurance
is the lower speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range.
can either be higher or lower than the speed for maximum specific range
is always higher than the speed for maximum specific range
is always lower than the speed for maximum specific range.
50.
The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
92%
43%
67%
70%
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