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CPL Test Series
Question Bank
Questions for MISCELLANEOUS 4903-5258
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened
from take off to landing.
while at their station.
only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest of safety.
only during take off and landing.
2.
In the hazardous materials transportation act, the freight compliance with the regulatory arrangements is the responsibility of the
captain.
station manager.
sender.
aerodrome manager.
3.
The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23 - dry-chemical4 - halogenWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
04-Mar
1 - 2 - 3 - 4
2
2002-03-04
4.
A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is
medium
poor
good
unreliable
5.
Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the
flight manual.
operational flight plan.
journey logbook.
operation manual.
6.
On overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance away from land, which is suitable for making a emergency landing greater than that corresponding to
400 NM or 120 minutes at cruising speed.
200 NM or 45 minutes at cruising speed.
100 NM or 30 minutes at cruising speed.
300 NM or 90 minutes at cruising speed.
7.
Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question are defined as such by
The IATA document entitled ""Regulations governing the transportation of dangerous goods by air"".
The ICAO document entitled ""Technical Instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air"".
The ICAO document entitled ""Technical Instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods "".
The directives of the Community Union.
8.
Which separation will be provided if Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) is used when operating in MNPS airspace?
90 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.
60 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.
60 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.
90 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.
9.
The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a cruising speed of 150 knots. The aircraft is flown by a single pilot.The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity runway centre lights and RVR readings for threshold mid and end of runway.The approach minimums for runway 06 are : DH = 300 feet, Horizontal visibility (HV) = 800 metres.The weather conditions are : horizontal visibility (HV) 900 metres and ceiling 200 feet.Is take-off possible?
Yes, visibility being higher than the horizontal visibility for the approach procedure.
Yes, if there is an accessible airport within 75 NM.
No, the ceiling being below the DH for the runway's approach procedure.
No, visibility being below 1 200 metres.
10.
To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is
possible and recommended.
useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions.
useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions.
useless because the toxical cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen.
11.
Viscous hydroplaning occurs primary if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and
is very smooth and clean. c)
the tyre treads are not in a good state.
is very smooth and dirty.
is rough textured.
12.
In the JAR OPS, a runway is refered to as contaminated when more than 25 % of the required runway surface is covered with the one of the following elements:1. a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway.2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water.3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further).4. ice, including wet ice.5. moist grass.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
1,3,4,5
1,2,3,4
1,3,4
2, 3, 4
13.
At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within NAT region?
Between FL290 and FL410.
Between FL275 and FL400.
Below FL290.
Between FL245 and FL410.
14.
The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is established by
the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the manufacturer
the manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted by the authority
15.
MNPS is the abbreviation for
Minimum Navigation Positioning System.
Maximum North-atlantic Precision System.
Minimum Navigation Performance Specification.
Military Network Performance Structure.
16.
The system which must be switched off in case of a belly compartment fire is generally the
total airconditioning
trim air
pressurization
ventilation of the cargo compartment
17.
The observations and studies conducted on the behavior of birds on the ground, ahead of an aircraft taking off and having reached an average speed of 135 kt, show that birds fly away
from the beginning of the takeoff roll
about ten seconds beforehand
as soon as they hear the engines noise
about two seconds beforehand
18.
Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that
the airline complies with the Technical Instructions
no passenger is carried on the same flight
national aviation administration permission has been granted
government permission has been granted
19.
On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily have a minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during
2 hours with normal cruising consumption
30 minutes with normal cruising consumption
30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
20.
An aircraft flying above flight level 410 on MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (degradation of navigational performance requirements, mechanics troubles... etc), bus is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right of left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and
climb or descent 500 ft
climb 1 000 ft or descent 500 ft
climb or descend 1 000 ft
climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft
21.
In accordance with OPS 1 430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima - General), it is established, among other considerations, that an Operator must take full account of Aeroplane Categories.The criteria taken into consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1,3.Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is
E
B
D
C
22.
To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use:1. a water fire-extinguisher2. a powder or chemical fire-extinguisher3. a halon fire-extinguisher4. a CO2 fireextinguisherThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is
2, 3, 4
1, 2, 3, 4
1,2
3, 4
23.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operationg Minima), an operator must ensure that system minima for ""non-precision approach procedures"", which are based upon the use of ILS without glidepath (LLZ only), VOR NDB, SRA, and VDF are no lower than MDH following value with
ILS facility without glidepath (localizer) lowest MDH=200 ft
VOR/DME facility, lowest MDH=300 ft
NDB facility, lowest MDH=300 ft
VOR facility, lowest MDH=250 ft
24.
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to
LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same runway
LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m. (using whole runway)
25.
A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :550 m
350 m
800 m
550 m
500 m
26.
A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth magnetic field is less than
6 micro-tesla
17 micro-tesla
38 micro tesla
10 micro-tesla
27.
A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is
the JAR OPS.
the operation manual's chapter ""Abnormal and Emergency procedures"".
the flight manual.
the minimum equipment list.
28.
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation time if a light aeroplance (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing ?
4 minutes
3 minutes
5 minutes
2 minutes
29.
In public transport, prior to take-off in icing conditions, the captain must check that
external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid.
external surfaces are free from any ice accretion greater than 5 mm.
possible ice accretions do not cause to exceed weight and balance limits.
external surfaces are free from any ice accretion which may impede the airplane performance and manoeuvrability, except within the limits specified by the flight manual.
30.
When a course is plotted at minimum time route, one passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding ground isochrone by applying to point K (original spot) a vector KK' which is equal to:mean wind from the preceding ground isochrone
wind at K.
mean wind from the preceding ground isochrone
mean wind up to the next ground isochrone.
wind at K'.
31.
(For this question use appendix )For the two labels represented in the appendix, the principal and secondary risks are respectively
infectious material, corrosive
corrosive material, infectious
toxic material, corrosive
corrosive material, toxic
32.
From the following list :1. Fire extinguishers2. Portable oxygen supplies3. First-aid kits4. Passenger meals5. Alcoholic beveragesWhich are classed as Dangerous Goods that are required to be on the aeroplane in accordance with relevant JAR's for operating reasons
2,3 and 4 only
3,4 and 5 only
1,2 and 3 only
1,2 and 5 only
33.
At a high ambient temperature (+ 30° C) and with a relative humidity as low as 40 %, in air free of cloud, fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing
can occur, but only at full power or cruise settings
cannot occur
can occur, but only at a low power setting
is possible at any setting
34.
As regards the detection of bird strike hazard, the pilot's means of information and prevention are:1 - ATIS.2 - NOTAMs.3 - BIRDTAMs.4 - Weather radar.5 - The report by another crew.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
1,3,4
1,2,5
2,5
1,2,3,4,5
35.
A category I precision approach (CAT I) has
a decision height equal to at least 200 ft.
no decision height.
a decision height equal to at least 100 ft.
a decision height equal to at least 50 ft.
36.
Who makes sure that the air transportation of an item of dangerous goods is not prohibited?
The shipper when completing the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods.
It is not specified.
The captain, always using the list of prohibited aircraft items.
The operator.
37.
During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinal spacing must be at least
20 minutes
10 minutes
15 minutes
5 minutes
38.
One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternative destination, are: (Annex 6, Part I)
At the predicted time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted time, equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
At the predicted time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
At the predicted time of take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
39.
The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into account :1. equipment available for navigation2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways3. composition of the flight crew4. obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas5. facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditionsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is
2,4,5
1,2,3,4,5
1,2,4,5
2,3,5
40.
The file kept by an employer on its flight crews records:1 - the training2 - the test results3 - a log of flying hours4 - a summary of the training by reference periodWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct answers?
2001-02-03
03-Fev
1 - 2 - 3 - 4
04-Mar
41.
A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for:1. a paper fire2. a hydrocarbon fire3. a fabric fire4. an electrical fire5. a wood fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
2, 3, 4
1, 3, 5
2, 4, 5
42.
Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds ?
long grass
an area liable to flooding
short gang-mown grass
edible rubbish
43.
In accordance with JAR OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the Category III A Operation, is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with a decision height lower than 100 feet an RVR (runway visual range) no less than
250 m
300 m
200 m
230 m
44.
A analysis of the bird strikes shows that the highest risk is encountered in a layer from
from 100 to 800 m.
from 200 to 500 m.
from 0 to 150 m.
from 500 to 1200 m.
45.
Following take-off, the noise abatement climb procedures specified by the operator is
different for a same airplane type, according to airports.
different according to airports and airplane types.
for the same airplane type, the same for all airports.
for all airplane types, the same for a specific airport.
46.
The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by
the shipper.
the handling agent.
the captain.
the operator.
47.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as pilot-in-command unless
he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in any type of aeroplane or an approved simulator, under the supervision of an examiner, in the preceding 60 days
he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 30 days
he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
48.
The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip
from the underwing toward the upper side of the wing.
from the upper side of the wing toward the underwing.
clockwise.
counterclockwise
49.
For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that : (Annex 6, Part I)
Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.
Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative.
Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative.
Does not exceed the equivalent of two hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.
50.
During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front left, will first see the
green steady light
red steady light
white steady light
green flashing light
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