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CPL Test Series
Question Bank
Questions for INDIGO RADIO NAVIGATION
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1.
Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity of light is 300 000 km/second)
1333 km
333 km
666 km
150 km
2.
The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are
collision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range (HF) communication capability.
continuous automatic position reporting using Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites and collision avoidance using TCAS II
air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC aircraft surveillance capability
the elimination of ground to air communications and the introduction of automatic separation between aircraft using TCAS II
3.
A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides accurate guidance from coverage limit down to
200 feet above the runway threshold
50 feet above ILS reference point
200 feet above the inner marker
runway surface
4.
Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?
SHF
HF
UHF
VHF
5.
A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
Eight
Four
Six
Two
6.
Complete the following statement. Aircraft Surface movement Radar operates on frequencies in the (i) .......... band employing an antenna that rotates at approximately (ii) .......... revolutions per minute, it is (iii) ......... possible to determine the type of aircraft from the return on the radar screen
(i) SHF (ii) 60 (iii) sometimes
(i) SHF (ii) 10 (iii) always
(i) EHF (ii) 30 (iii) never
(i) EHF (ii) 100 (iii) never
7.
The code transmitted by a SSR transponder consists of
pulses
phase differences
frequency differences
amplitude differences
8.
A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 32°W.An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 28°W.The aircraft is on VOR radial
360
180
208
212
9.
A DME station is located 1000 feet above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL 370, 15 NM away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of
16 NM
15 NM
17 NM
14 NM
10.
The OUTER MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility transmits on a frequency of
200 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse
300 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per second
75 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per second
75 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse
11.
The maximum range of primary radar depends on
frequency
wave length
pulse length
pulse recurrence frequency
12.
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), the active route/flight plan is coloured
cyan
magenta
yellow
green
13.
Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the most accurate position fixes in air navigation?
GLONASS and COSPAS-SARSAT
NAVSTAR/GPS and NNSS-Transit
NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS
NNSS-Transit and GLONASS
14.
An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°. In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximately
105 NM
50 NM
165 NM
210 NM
15.
GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible acording to user (civil or military).Commercial aviation uses
the two carrier waves and one public code
only the 1 227 MHz carrier wave and one code
only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and one code
only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and two codes
16.
Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS transmission frequencies and codes is correct?
The lower frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes
C/A and P codes are transmitted at different times on both frequencies
The higher frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes
The higher frequency is only used to transmit the P code
17.
A DME that has difficulty obtaining a ""lock-on"":(NOTE: PRF = pulse recurrence frequency, PPS = pulses per second)
stays in search mode but reduces PRF to max. 60 PPS after 100 seconds
stays in search mode but reduces PRF to max. 60 PPS after 15000 pulse pairs have been transmitted
stays in search mode without a reduction in PRF
alternates search mode with periods of memory mode lasting 10 seconds
18.
Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is used for the
assignment of received PRN-codes (Pseudo Random Noise) to the appropriate satellite
recognition wether Selective Availability (SA) is operative
fast identification of received signals coming from visible satellites
correction of receiver clock error
19.
In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Selective Availability' (SA) gives the option to artificially degrade the accuracy by
using a less accurate atomic clock in a satellite for signal processing
dithering the satellite clock
shutting off selected satellites
offsetting satellite atomic clocks by a predetermined constant amount
20.
What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glidepath at a groundspeed of 90 kt?
700 FT/MIN
450 FT/MIN
600 FT/MIN
400 FT/MIN
21.
DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately
600 MHz
110 MHz
1000 MHz
300 MHz
22.
Which one of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes should be used by aircraft entering airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required?
5000
7000
2000
23.
The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should be mounted
on the upper side of the fuselage in the vicinity of the centre of gravity
inside the tail fin to minimise the influence of reflections from the wing and fuselage
under the fuselage in order to receive correction data transmitted by D-GPS stations
in the vicinity of the receiver to avoid long transmission lines
24.
How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of the received signals belongs to which satellite?
The receiver detects the direction from which the signals are received and compares this information with the calculated positions of the satellites
The Doppler shift is unique to each satellite
Each satellite transmits its signal, on common frequencies, with an individual Pseudo Random Noise code
Each satellite transmits its signal on a separate frequency
25.
The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two overlapping lobes that are transmitted on (i).......... frequencies and carry different (ii)..........
(i) different (ii) phases
(i) different (ii) modulation frequencies
(i) the same (ii) modulation frequencies
(i) the same (ii) phases
26.
In order to obtain an ADF bearing the
BFO switch must be selected to 'ON'
mode selector should be switched to 'loop'
signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerials
sense aerial must be tuned separately
27.
An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range of a serviceable VOR. What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?
10° or more
1.5° or more
2.5 or more
less than 10°
28.
An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is locked on to a reading of 090°. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The available information from the VOR is:Radial 135°, relative bearing unknown
Radial unknown, relative bearing 045°
Radial 135°, relative bearing unknown
Radial unknown, relative bearing 225°
Radial 315°, relative bearing unknown
29.
Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include
coastal refraction - lane slip - mountain effect
static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system
static interference - station interference - latitude error
height error - station interference - mountain effect
30.
The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to
detect areas of possible severe turbulence in cloud
inhibit unwanted ground returns
extend the mapping range
give an indication of cloud tops
31.
A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50NM. By changing the scale to 50 NM, the return on the radar screen should
decrease in area and move to the top of the screen
decrease in area but not change in position on the screen
increase in area and move to the top of the screen
increase in area and appear nearer to the bottom of the screen
32.
Loran C coverage is
unrestricted over the oceans and adjacent coastlines but limited over the major continental land masses
confined to certain limited areas of the world
global
unrestricted between latitudes 70°N and 70°S
33.
What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF letdown may be flown?
VOR
VOR/DME
VHF radio
none
34.
Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF bearings?
Precipitation interference
Coastal effect
Quadrantal error
Local thunderstorm activity
35.
The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:phase comparison
phase comparison
difference in depth of modulation
envelope matching
beat frequency discrimination
36.
The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation Display of an Electronic Flight Instrument System
indicates to the pilot that a manually selected heading is being flown
represents the track of the aircraft over the ground. When it co-incides with the desired track, wind influence is compensated for
indicates that the pilot has made a manual track selection
corresponds to the calculated IRS TH and is correct during turns
37.
Which of the following frequency-bands is used by the Loran C navigation system?
1750 - 1950 kHz
90 - 110 kHz
10.2 - 13.6 kHz
978 - 1213 MHz
38.
Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (R-NAV) comes from an external, not on-board, system?
Pressure altitude
Inertial Navigation System (INS) position
VOR/DME radial/distance
Magnetic heading
39.
Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the GPS receiver to determine position (Latitude, longitude and altitude)?
ED 87
EUREF 92
WGS 84
ED 50
40.
The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because
DME transmits twin pulses
aircraft transmitter and DME ground station are transmitting on different frequencies
reflections are subject to doppler frequency shift
DME pulse recurrence rates are varied
41.
Which of the following statements concerning LORAN-C is correct?
It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the principle of range measurement by phase comparison
It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the principle of differential range by pulse technique
It is a navigation system based on secondary radar principles, position lines are obtained in sequence from up to eight ground stations
It is a navigation system based on simultaneous ranges being received from a minimum of four ground stations
42.
In which of the following cases would ETOs and ETA at destination calculated by the Flight Management Computer (FMC) be correct?
When the FMC positions and GS are accurate
When the FMC computes each ETO and ETA using the correct GS
When the actual winds match the forecast winds, and the actual cruising Mach number is equal to the FMC calculated Mach number
When the ETOs and ETA are based on the forecast winds calculated from the actual takeoff time
43.
A DME is located at MSL.An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately
7 NM
11 NM
6 NM
8 NM
44.
The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is
1300 Hz, blue
400 Hz, amber
400 Hz, blue
3000 Hz, blue
45.
Which of the following lists information required to input a waypoint or 'Phantom Station' into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
Radials from a minimum of two VORs to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'
Radial and distance from a VOR/DME to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'
Magnetic track and distance from the aircraft to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'
Magnetic track and distance to a VOR/DME from the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'
46.
The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is
a geoid
a sphere
a mathematical model that describes the exact shape of the earth
an ellipsoid
47.
An aircraft carrying out a 3° glidepath ILS approach experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a decrease of approximately
150 FT/MIN
50 FT/MIN
250 FT/MIN
100 FT/MIN
48.
Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down?
It is pilot interpreted and does not require the assistance of ATC
It only requires a VHF radio to be fitted to the aircraft
It does not require any special equipment to be fitted to the aircraft
It does not require any special equipment, apart from a VHF radio, to be installed in the aircraft or on the ground
49.
Which of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes is used to indicate transponder malfunction?
4096
7600
9999
50.
The minimum range of a primary radar, using the pulse technique, is determined by the (i)........ , the maximum unambiguous range by the (ii).........
(i) transmission frequency (ii) pulse recurrence frequency
(i) pulse length (ii) length of the timebase
(i) pulse length (ii) pulse recurrence frequency
(i) transmission frequency (ii) transmitter power output
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