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CPL Test Series
Question Bank
Questions for REVISION 2
Answer the following questions
Test Mode
Training Mode
1. TCAS 2 when fitted with mode C transponder may give
TA and RA in vertical plane.
TA only
TA and RA in vertical plane.
TA and RA in horizontal plane.
2. EPR is the ratio of
Jet pipe pressure to the compressor inlet pressure on a gas turbine engine
Jet pipe pressure to the compressor outlet pressure on a gas turbine engine
The compressor outlet pressure to the compressor inlet pressure
Jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure on a turbo-prop engine only
3. What are the colours used on an EFIS display to show a tuned navigation aid and an airport?
green & cyan
white & yellow
white & magenta
green & white
4. “LOC ARMED” lights up on the FMA part of the PFD, this means
localiser alarm is on
a/c is on localiser centerline
localiser beam captured
localiser beam armed and awaiting capture
5. An autopilot delivers roll commands to the ailerons to achieve a bank angle
proportional to TAS, but below a specified maximum
set bank of 30 degrees
proportional to the deviation from the desired heading, but not exceeding a specified maximum
set bank of 25 degrees
6. Which of the following will effect a direct reading compass? ferrous metals, non-ferrous metals, electrical equipment
1 & 2
1 & 3
all 3
1 only
7. The Altitude Alert system alerts the pilot
When reference altitude equals the selected altitude
At the selected altitude
When deviating from the selected altitude
At decision height
8. To obtain heading information from a Gyro Stabilised platform, the gyros should have
1 degree of freedom and a horizontal axis
2 degrees of freedom and a vertical axis
2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal axis
1 degree of freedom and a vertical axis
9. An aircraft equipped with digital avionics includes an ECAM system. This centralised system, if a failure in one of the monitored systems is displayed, the crew must
analyse initially the failure and only respond to a level 1 warning
reset the warning display after noting the failure on the left screen
apply the immediate actions as directed by the checklist on the left of the two screens
cancel the warning
10. What corrective action is given by TCAS?
Climb or descend
Turn left or right
Turn then climb or descend.
Contact ATC
11. Select the correct statement
CAS = TAS corrected for density error
TAS = EAS corrected for compressibility error
EAS = IAS corrected for position error
EAS = CAS corrected for compressibility error
12. An aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and altitude is flying from a cold airmass into warmer air. The effect of the change of temperature on the speed will be
TAS will increase
CAS will increase
CAS will increase
EAS will decrease
13. An aircraft is descending at a constant mach number. If the aircraft is descending through an inversion layer, the CAS will
Increase
Decrease
Remain constant
Decrease then decrease more slowly
14. The rigidity (gyroscopic interia. of a gyroscope may be increased by
Decreasing the speed of rotation and increasing the speed of the rotor.
Increasing the number of gimbals and decreasing the number of planes of rotation
Increasing the speed of rotation and increasing the mass of the rotor
Increasing the speed of rotation and decreasing the mass of the rotor
15. VLO is defined as
the maximum speed at which to fly with the landing gear extended
the maximum speed at which to fly with the landing gear retracted
the minimum speed at which to fly with the landing gear extended
the maximum speed at which the landing gear may be retracted or extended
16. What errors can the Air Data Computer correct for? 1. instrument error & ram rise 2. compressibility & density error 3. lag & density error 4. position & temperature error 5. temperature & instrument error 6. manoeuvre error & ram rise 7. manoeuvre & position errors
1 & 6
2 & 4
3 & 7
3 & 5
17. During an autoland the caption LAND 2 is illuminated. The system is
Requiring a crew input
Fail passive
Fail active or fail operational
Approaching decision height
18. A factor giving an error on a direct indicating compass would be
turning through east/west headings
crosswinds - particularly on east/west headings
acceleration on east/west headings
parallax due to oscillations of the compass rose
19. Torque meters provide a reliable measure of power output from
A turbo-propeller engine
A turbo-jet engine
A noise suppression unit
An APU
20. The GPWS uses inputs from
The radio altimeter, static pressure monitor, ILS receiver and the landing gear and flap position monitors
The radio altimeter, ILS receiver, static pressure monitor, and the landing gear position monitor only
The radio altimeter, static pressure monitor, landing gear position monitor, and the flap position monitor only
The radio altimeter and the ILS receiver only
21. The amber ALERT sign is on an INS control and display unit
Illuminates steadily after passing a waypoint in manual mode, until the next leg is programmed in
Start flashing 2 minutes before reaching the next waypoint and goes out at 30 seconds to run
Illuminates if power from the aircraft bus bar has been lost and the system is operating on standby battery
Illuminates steadily for 2 minutes before reaching the next waypoint
22. Which of the following is the FMS normal operating condition in the cruise?
V NAV only
L NAV and V NAV
L NAV or V NAV
L NAV only
23. WXR display is on
The co-pilots CRT only
A special screen
The captains CRT only
On both the captains and co-pilots CRTs
24. Altitude select and altitude hold are examples of
Outer loop functions in roll
Interlocking functions
Inner loop functions in pitch
Manometric functions from the ADC
25. If one probe of a multi-sensor EGT system became disconnected, the reading would
Fall to zero
Decrease by between 20°C to 30°C
Be largely unaffected
Increase by between 20°C to 30°C
26. If the rpm of the rotor in a turn and slip indicator is higher than normal, the turn indicator wil
Overread the correct rate of turn
Not indicate due to the increased rigidity
Underread the correct rate of turn
Indicate correctly
27. What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single failure below alert height?
Fail passive
Fail operation or fail active
Land 2 system
Fail soft
28. Which of the following apply to the a Yaw damper : 1. May aid the pilot in the event of asymmetric thrust after engine failure 2. Applies measured amounts of aileron to counter dutch roll 3. Increases lateral stability to stop dutch roll 4. Is required at high altitude 5. Can automatically help in turn co-ordination 6. May deflect the rudder to counteract the natural oscillating frequency of the aircraft.
2, 3 & 6
1, 4 & 6
2, 3 & 4
1, 4 & 5
29. To improve the horizontality of a compass, the magnet assembly is suspended from a point
Varying with magnetic latitude
On the centre line of the magnet
Above the centre of gravity
Below the centre of gravity
30. During a CAT 1 ILS approach, height is indicated by
Radio Altimeter
Barometric
Marker
GPS
31. The principle of the fuel-monitoring device giving an indication of the total fuel burnt is
multiplying flight time by fuel consumption
integration of instantaneous flow
capacitance variation of a capacitor
difference of indication according to departure value
32. You are flying at a constant FL 290 and constant mach number. The total temperature increases by 5°. The CAS will
will increase or decrease depending on whether you are above or below ISA.
remain approximately constant
decrease by 10 kts
increase by 10 kts
33. An aircraft has a compensated capacitance fuel contents gauging system and is refuelled so that the total fuel contents are 76000kg at a temperature of 18°C and an S.G. of 0.81. Whilst the aircraft is parked the temperature increases to 26°C and the S.G. becomes 0.80. The indicated fuel contents have
increased by 10%
decreased by 5%
increased by 5%
remained the same
34. Weather Radar returns can be displayed in which of the following EFIS Modes
Map ILS VOR
Plan Exp ILS Map
Plan Exp ILS Exp VOR
Map Exp ILS Exp VOR
35. What input is there to TCAS 2?
Mode ‘C’ transponder which co-ordinates avoidance manoeuvres
Mode ‘A’ transponder which gives TA and RAs
Mode ‘C’ and ‘S’ transponders which co-ordinate avoidance manoeuvres
Mode ‘S’ transponder which co-ordinates avoidance manoeuvres
36. What is the purpose of the auto-synchronisation system in an A/P: 1. Prevents snatching on disengagement 2. Prevents snatching on engagement 3. Cross feeds rudder and aileron inputs for co-ordination 4. May not allow the A/P to engage if unserviceable 5. Displays the control positions 6. Removes standing demands from the autopilot system prior to the CMD button being selected
2,3&5
1,3&5
1,4&6
2,4&6
37. If only a single A/P is used to climb, cruise and approach; following a failure
it is fail safe and will disconnect
it is fail operational and will not disconnect
it is fail passive with redundancy
it is fail soft and will not disconnect
38. The red arc in the middle of the green band of a piston engine RPM indicator signifies
RPM that must never be exceeded in the cruise
Maximum RPM
Minimum RPM
RPM at which a greater level of vibration is encountered
39. What are the advantages of an IRS compared to an INS?
Reduce spin-up time and a dither motor to prevent “lock-out”.
Increase accuracy and a dither motor to prevent “lock-out”.
Reduce spin-up time and accuracy not adversely affect by “g”
Insensitively to “g” and reduced wander of the gyroscope.
40. During an approach to autoland at 1500feet
Localiser is controlling the roll channel, stabiliser is trimmed nose up and roll out is armed
Off line channels are manually engaged, flare mode is armed
Localiser is controlling the roll channel, off line channels are automatically engaged and flare mode is armed
Provided both localiser and glideslope signals are valid LAND 3 will
41. The combined Machmeter/ASI is subject to the following errors
Position, density, instrument, compressibility, manoeuvre induced
Instrument and compressibility only
Those of the Machmeter only
Instrument, pressure and temperature only
42. In an inertial-lead VSI the source of the most pronounced error is
Steep turn
Instrument
Missed approach manoeuver
Position
43. Which of the following are modes of the GPWS? 1. Excessive sink rate. 2. Altitude loss after T/O or go-around. 3. Excessive Glideslope deviation. 4. High climb rate. 5. Flaps in incorrect position. 6. High altitude descent. 7. Stall.
1, 2, 3, & 5
1, 2 & 3
1, 3, 5 & 7
All 7
44. The gravity erecting device on a vertical gyro is used on which instrument
gyromagnetic device
turn indicator
directional gyro unit
artificial horizon
45. In a Schuler tuned INS, the largest unbounded errors are
Due to acceleration errors
Due to real wander of the platform gyroscopes
Created at the first stage of integration
Track errors due to initial misalignment
46. Which of the following types of pressure gauge would be best suited to a high pressure input?
bourdon tube
dynamic probe
bellows
aneroid capsule
47. When the pointer of a rate of turn indicator shows a steady rate of turn
The calibrated spring is exerting a force about the lateral axis equal to the rate of turn
The spring is providing a force which produces a precession equal to the rate of turn (in the same direction as the turn)
The spring is providing a force which produces a precession equal to the rate of turn (in the opposite direction to the turn)
The force produced by the spring is producing a precession equal to but
48. An aircraft taking off from an airfield with QNH set in the altimeter has both static vents blocked by ice. As the aircraft climbs away the altimeter will
Read the height of the aircraft above the airfield
Read the airfield elevation
Show only a very small increase in height
Indicate the aircraft height amsl
49. A stall warning system fitted to a large aircraft will always include
Various inputs including landing gear micro switch, a warning module and an aural warning
Stick shakers and/or stick push
Various inputs including speed brake position, a warning module and a visual or aural warning
Various inputs including EGT, a warning module and an aural warning
50. What are the components of a CVR 1 Microphone 2 Crash/Fire resistant construction 3 Independent battery 4 A Flight data recorder
1 & 2
1 & 4
1, 2 & 4
1, 2, 3 & 4
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